PANCE

Practice examination

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Question 1 of 15

A 32-year-old woman has 8 months of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and prolactin 120 ng/mL. She takes no medications known to raise prolactin, and pituitary MRI shows a 12-mm adenoma with modest suprasellar extension but no visual field defect. Which is the most appropriate initial therapy?

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